1) If a stakeholder has any questions about project deliverables, as the PM, you should direct him to the: a) WBS b) Project plan c) Preliminary Scope statement d) None of the above.
2) Your construction project was damaged by an earthquake. Your contractor says that he cannot fulfil the terms of the contract due to a specific clause you both had signed in the contract. He is referring to the: a) Force majeure clause b) Fixed price clause c) Contract obligation terms d) None of the above.
3) Your vendor has confirmed in writing that he will not be able to provide the products contracted to him, in the time mentioned in the contract. You can terminate the contract and sue for damages. This is a type of: a) Minor breach b) Anticipatory breach c) Material breach d) Fundamental breach .
4) As a PM, you manage multiple projects. One of your projects is over budget while the other is under budget. You decide to transfer money from the latter to the former and report both projects as within budget. This is against the PMI code of ethics and is called: a) Unethical management b) Budget tampering c) Fraudulent reporting d) Cost leveling.
5) Your brother can influence bids in the vendor company that has been contracted for your project. You should: a) Disclose the bid price that is most likely to give him an advantage when bidding b) Reject other vendors and award him the contract c) Refrain from the decision-making process and make a full disclosure to stakeholders and wait for their decision before you proceed d) Hint to the stakeholders that your brother might be involved in bidding.
6) A project you are managing is about to be completed. But there is a minor defect in the work produced by the contractor. You should: a) Neglect the defect if it is trivial b) Ask the contractor to fix according to SOW c) Submit a new RFP d) None of the above.
7) As a PM, you have identified some low priority risks. You should: a) Neglect them as they will mostly not occur b) Add them to a watch list within the risk register c) Plan detailed response plans d) None of the above.
8) One of your team members' A's father was sick when you were in the planning stage of your project. A had informed you that he might have to leave to visit his father if the situation arose. You had planned for this and spoke to the functional manager of your group to provide a back-up resource, B to be used if necessary.
Now, A has left to see his father and B is filling in for him. But B is taking more than expected time to get up to speed and this impacts project cost and schedule.
This is an example of a:
a) Residual risk b) Secondary risk c) Contingency plan d) None of the above.
9) To motivate your team, you decided to reward a team member who performed well. This hurt cohesion in the team. You should: a) Reset award criteria b) Modify reward strategy to be win-win for the team c) Award only two people d) Declare that there will be no rewards going forward .
10) Your project uses a vendor who has completed 50% of the contracted work. You are unsure of how much to pay the vendor. You should refer to the: a) Request for proposal b) Contract c) Response to bid d) Statement of work.
11) When estimating time for activities, a PM should: a) Use the best guess and estimate for all activities as there will be changes anyways as the project progresses and more information becomes available b) Involve people who will be doing the work to get estimates c) Estimate for what the cost will allow and not include buffers d) None of the above.
12) When there are people from different countries and cultures in a team, the project management team should: a) Neglect the cultural differences to work as a team b) Deal with everyone the same way c) Capitalize on cultural differences d) Mentor each other.
13) If your business sponsor has an important but minor change to the scope, and he requests that you make the change without having to process a change request, you should: a) Accommodate the change as stakeholder satisfaction is key to project success b) Refuse to make the change as the scope has been frozen c) Ask the sponsor to work with your team member to implement the minor change and document the change d) Request the client that the change management process be followed.
14) If a stakeholder directly asks a team member to make changes and the team member accommodates it: a) Admonish the team member during the team meeting so that other team members are also aware b) Inform the stakeholder that he should not talk to your team member c) Talk to the stakeholder and team member in private, and emphasize gently that the Integrated Change Control process should be followed d) Pretend to not know about the change and let it happen.
15) When your client is ready to accept the product your project has produced, you should: a) Refer to the quality plan to see if the product meets specifications b) Refer to project management plan c) Obtain client sign off and follow administrative closure process d) Let go off the project resources and assign them to other projects.
16) Appreciating a team member's good work in front of the team results in: a) Jealousy among other team members and should be avoided b) Encouragement for the team member and motivation for other team members c) Shouldn't be done as it shows preference d) None of the above.
17) As the project manager of an important project, you learnt many helpful tools and tips. What should you do? a) Keep them to yourself b) Archive your learning in the project folder and share with other PMs c) Sign a non-disclosure agreement d) None of the above.
18) You just found out that the company that you were planning to use in your project is known for being late in delivering their products that can lead to losses to the project. You decide to go with a different company to ______ the risk. a) Mitigate b) Reject c) Transfer d) Avoid.
19) You are the project manager of a project that involves sensitive information. You are inviting bids from vendors for some tasks on this project. Since the winning vendor will have access to the sensitive information, you should: a) Decide to drop the vendor and instead do the tasks using an internal team b) Swear the vendor to secrecy c) Ask the vendor to sign a non-disclosure agreement d) Threaten to take the vendor to court.
20) A project is behind schedule. Two senior resources are added to help speed up work. The result is (choose the best answer): a) Project will be completed on time b) Project cost will not increase c) Project may not be completed on time due to increased number of communication channels d) None of the above.
21) Project scope statement is the output of: a) Plan Scope b) Define scope c) Collect requirements d) None of the above.
22) Change requests are the outputs of which process: a) Validate Scope b) Define Scope c) Control Scope d) Change Scope.
23) The development of the scope management plan and the detailing of the project scope begin with: a) Analysis of information contained in the project charter b) the latest approved subsidiary plans of the project management plan c) Historical information contained in the organizational process assets d) any other relevant enterprise environmental factors.
24) Project charter: a) Is an output of Develop Project Charter b) Is an input to Develop Project Management Plan c) Uses Project statement of work as one of its inputs d) All of the above.
25) An example of organizational process asset is: a) Company policy document b) Formal and informal plans c) Completed schedules d) All of the above.
26) Perform Qualitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Project Risk Management? a) Planning b) Executing c) Monitoring d) Controlling.
27) Perform Quantitative risk analysis is a process that belongs to which process group in Project Risk Management: a) Planning b) Executing c) Monitoring d) Controlling.
28) Risk register is an output of: a) Identify Risks b) Perform Qualitative risk analysis c) Perform Quantitative risk analysis d) Plan Risk responses.
29) Updates to the risk register is an output of: a) Perform Quantitative risk analysis b) Perform Qualitative risk analysis c) Control risks d) All of the above.
30) Control risks produces the following outputs: a) Work performance information b) Change requests c) Project management plan updates d) All of the above.
31) Control risks produces the following outputs: a. Project management plan updates b. Project documents updates c. Organizational process assets updates d) All of the above.
32) A risk is a bad event that will adversely impact the project. This statement is: a) Always true b) Always false c) Sometimes true d) None of the above.
33) The triple constraints in project management are: a) Scope, Time, cost b) Time, scope, performance c) Scope, Time, plan d) Scope, Time, quality.
34) Any changes to the project after the plan is prepared: a) Have to be processed according to the Integrated Change Control process b) Have to be assessed for impact c) Can be done without impact analysis if the impact is zero or minimal d) Should not be done as they were not in the original plan.
35) Develop Schedule produces the following output: a) Project schedule b) WBS c) Activity time d) Project plan.
36) Critical path is: a) The time it takes to finish the project completing only the critical activities b) Difference between end time and start time of project c) The sequence of activities that represents the longest path
through a project, which determines the shortest possible project duration
d) The sequence of activities that represents the shortest path
through a project, which determines the longest possible project duration
.
37) When there are multiple critical paths in a project: a) The risk is less as it is divided between the paths b) The risk is more as the risk of delay is more c) Risk depends on how the critical path is calculated d) There is no risk as the paths cancel it out.
38) Dummy activities are used in: a) Activity on arrow diagram b) Activity decomposition c) Activity list d) Activity duration estimates.
39) Software Project A took 5 months to complete. Project B, very similar to Project A will probably take about 5 months to complete. This expert judgement technique is: a) Analogous estimating b) Critical path c) Expert estimation d) Compression.
40) Crashing: a) Is a schedule compression technique b) Increases costc) Is achieved by adding resources c) Is achieved by adding resources d) All of the above.
41) Fast tracking: a) Is a schedule compression technique b) Does sequential activities in parallel c) Increases risk of rework d) All of the above.
42) Quality audit: a) Is a tool in Perform quality assurance b) Checks the compliance of project activities with organizational policies c) Can confirm the implementation of approved change requests including updates, corrective actions, defect repairs, and preventive actions d) May be scheduled or random, and may be conducted by internal or external auditors.
43) Ishikawa diagrams are also called: a) Fishbone diagrams b) Causal diagrams c) Stick diagrams d) Bone diagrams.
44) Some managers believe that people do not work willingly and must be watched and managed continuosly. They are of type: a) Theory X b) Theory Y c) Theory XY d) Theory V.
45) When an individual's lower level needs are met, the next level's needs are his motivation. This forms the basis of: a) Theory Y b) Maslow's hierarchy c) Theory X d) None of the above.
46) Locating all team members in the same location is called: a) War room b) Collocation c) Teleconferencing d) Telecommuting.
47) Noise is: a) Any interference that might compromise the delivery of the message b) False information c) Highest in bad weather d) None of the above.
48) A project manager manages a team of 5. The number of communication channels is: a) 15 b) 10 c) 5 d) None of the above.
49) Email communication is: a) Formal style, written b) Informal style, written c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
50) A technique used to identify root causes of issues is: a) Fish bone diagram b) Quality check c) Issue list d) Defect review.
51) A bar graph that shows resource assignments over time is: a) Resource leveling b) Resource histogram c) Resource chart d) Gantt chart.
52) Resource leveling: a) Is the allocation of resources to resolve over allocation issues b) Helps resolve resource conflicts c) Can impact time of project d) Can only be done with project management software.
53) A CPM critical path has: a) Non-zero float b) Negative free float c) Zero total float d) None of the above.
54) If CPI=1.3, SPI=.8, what's the status of the project? a) Over budget and behind schedule b) Under budget and behind schedule c) Under budget and ahead of schedule d) Over budget and ahead of schedule.
55) Scope management plan is an output of: a) Plan Scope management b) Define Scope c) Both a and b d) None of the above.
56) Earned value=100, Planned value=110, the schedule performance index is: a) 1.1 b) 0.91 c) -10 d) 10.
57) Earned value=100, Actual cost=120, the cost performance index is: a) 0.01 b) 20 c) 0.833 d) -20.
58) The five stages in team development according to Tuckman’s ladder are: a) Forming, storming, norming, performing, adjourning b) Forming, storming, norming, reforming, adjourning c) Forming, norming, reforming, performing, adjourning d) Planning, forming, storming, performing, adjourning.
59) Theory Y assumes employees: a) Are self-motivated b) Have to be micro-managed c) Work only for money d) Are not ambitious.
60) Low-priority risks should be: a) Added to a watch list and the risk register updated b) Removed from the watch list c) Removed from the risk register d) Informed to the customer .
61) A technique used in Expert Judgement to determine probability of risk is: a) Interviews with experts b) Rank Risks c) Risk register updates d) Plan Risk responses.
62) Monte Carlo simulation is a technique used to perform: a) Qualitative risk analysis b) Quantitative risk analysis c) Decision tree analysis d) Risk response.
63) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are: a) Risk register b) Risk management plan c) Cost management plan d) All of the above.
64) Inputs to Perform Quantitative Risk analysis process are: a) Organizational process assets b) Schedule management plan c) Cost management plan d) All of the above.
65) Tools/techniques to perform quantitative risk analysis are: a) Expert judgement b) Data gathering and representation techniques c) Quantitative risk analysis and modeling techniques d) All of the above.
66) 'Plan risk responses' process involves: a) Planning to decrease threats to the project b) Planning to benefit from possible opportunities c) Both of the above d) Only A.
67) Examine the statement-"A detailed risk response plan should be prepared no matter how huge or trivial the risk is, irrespective of whether the effort is cost-effective or not, as this is the process." This statement is: a) Always true b) Always false c) Sometimes true d) Sometimes false.
68) Positive risks are also called: a) Good risks b) Opportunities c) Advantages d) Project plusses.
69) The four strategies used to deal with negative threats are: a) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, accept b) Avoid, transfer, mitigate, reject c) Accept, transfer, mitigate, reject d) Accept, analyze, avoid, mitigate.
70) Validate Scope and Control Scope belong to: a) Planning process group b) Initiating process group c) Executing process group d) Monitoring and Control process group.
71) In a fixed price contract, the risk: a) lies more with the seller b) lies more with the buyer c) is the same for seller and buyer d) Can't say.
72) In a time-materials contract, the possibility of a cost increase: a) lies more with the seller b) lies more with the buyer c) is the same for seller and buyer d) Can't say.
73) Purchasing insurance is a form of ______ risk: a) Avoiding b) Transferring c) Mitigating d) Working around.
74) The only output of the Identify Risks process is: a) Risk analysis b) Risk register c) Risk monitor d) Risk response plan.
75) The four strategies used to deal with positive threats are: a) Exploit, share, enhance, accept b) Exploit, share, enhance, adjust c) Exploit, simulate, enhance, accept d) Exploit, share, prototype, accept.
76) How to define, monitor and control risks in a project is documented in: a) Expert judgement interview results b) Risk register c) Risk management plan d) Workshops.
77) Tools/techniques used in Plan Procurements process are: a) Make or buy analysis b) Expert judgement c) Market research d) All of the above.
78) Unclear scope definition in a project using Fixed price contract can lead to losses for: a) the buyer b) the vendor c) both buyer and vendor d) Neither as these are sunk costs.
79) Request for proposal, Request for Information, Invitation for bid are broadly called: a) Procurement documents b) Vendor documents c) Bidding documents d) Contract documents.
80) Create WBS belongs to: a) Initiating b) Executing c) Closing d) None of the above.
81) Closing a Project provides which of the following benefits? a) Releases organization resources to pursue new endeavors b) Formally ends project work c) Provides lessons learned d) All of the above.
82) Which of the below are inputs of Close Project? a) Project management plan b) Organization process assets c) Accepted deliverables d) All of the above.
83) 'Gold plating' is a) Beating customer expectations b) Producing excellent deliverables c) Addition of a feature not in the original scope plan d) All of the above.
84) CPPC and fixed-price contracts are used in: a) PO with standard item b) PO with variable item c) Request for proposal d) Price-free contracts.
85) WBS is created in a) Project Scope management b) Risk management process c) Planning process d) Monitor and control .
86) A tool/technique used in the Plan Human Resource Management is: a) Political factors b) Organization chart c) Personnel policies d) Interpersonal factors.
87) RBS stands for: a) Resource breakdown structure b) Risk breakdown structure c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
88) Which of the following is true? a) RACI (Responsible-Accountable-Consult-Inform) is a type of RAM (Responsibility Assignment matrix) b) RAM shows the resources' responsibilities on the project c) RAM and RACI are matrix-based charts d) All of the above .
89) 'Scope' of project is: a) Any work committed to orally with customer b) Only work that has to be completed to successfully finish project c) Any work that customer requires to be completed d) Only work that can be completed within project duration.
90) Tools for Plan Quality Management are: a) Cost-benefit analysis b) Cost of quality c) Benchmarking d) All of the above.
91) Crosby's cost of quality theory of 'zero defects' is based on: a) Prevention b) Correction c) Conformance d) Fitness for use.
92) Juran's fitness for use theory of cost of quality can be summarized as: a) Continuous improvement b) Making a product that meets or exceeds customer expectations c) Making a product that is easy to use d) Making a product with zero defects.
93) 'Budget at Completion' is also called: a) Actual cost b) Budgeted cost of work performed c) Earned value d) Total Planned value for the project.
94) Which of the following are examples of cost reimbursable contracts: a) Cost plus incentive fee b) Cost plus fixed fee c) Cost plus award fee d) All of the above.
95) A critical path activity: a) Is crucial for the project to be completed successfully b) Needs to be signed of by the stakeholder c) Is an activity on the critical path in the project schedule d) Is an activity that cannot be substituted by a different activity.
96) A dummy activity has: a) Infinite duration b) Zero duration c) No importance d) All of the above.
97) Residual risk is a risk: a) Found in reserve analysis b) That remains after all risk responses have been implemented c) That will be eliminated after applying the appropriate risk response d) None of the above.
98) Plan Scope Management and Define Scope belong to: a) Planning process group b) Initiating process group c) Executing process group d) Monitoring and Control process group.
99) A room where team members work on issue resolution is called: a) Conference room b) Resolution room c) War room d) Video conferencing room.
100) ‘Variance at completion’ can be calculated as: a) EAC-AC b) BAC-EAC c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
101) An average PM spends 50% of her time on: a) Meetings b) Issue resolution c) Managing stakeholders d) Risk analysis.
102) The cost of a contractor is $25 per hour. Two contractors working for 10 hours will cost $500. This is an example of: a) Analogous estimating b) Parametric estimating c) Three-point estimating d) Bottom-up estimating.
103) Using PERT triangular distribution, calculate the time it takes for a task with the following information:
Pessimistic time=5 hours, Optimistic time=2 hours, Most likely time=5 hours. The answer is: a) 4 hours b) 3 hours c) 5 hours d) 1.5 hours.
104) The cost management plan can establish: a) Control thresholds b) Organizational procedures links c) Level of precision d) All of the above.
105) The revenue earned from doing a project is $1000. The costs involved sum to $500. The benefit cost ratio is: a) 2 b) 0.5 c) 500000 d) None of the above.
106) If the Benefit cost ratio is > 1, then: a) Costs are greater than benefits b) Benefits are greater than costs c) Cannot be determined d) Depends on other factors.
107) EV=$1000, PV=$2000. The schedule performance index is: a) 0.5 b) 2 c) 1000 d) None of the above.
108) Earned value=$2000. Planned value=$2500. The schedule performance index is: a) 0.8 b) 1.25 c) 500 d) None of the above.
109) Estimate at completion can be calculated using BAC and CPI as: a) BAC/CPI b) CPI/BAC c) BAC-CPI d) CPI-BAC.
110) Earned value=$1000, Actual cost=$2000. The cost variance is: a) -1000 b) 2 c) 1000 d) None of the above.
111) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, cost performance index=0.5, Earned value= $600, schedule performance index=0.5, both the CPI and SPI influence the remaining work,. The estimate at completion is: a) $1000 b) $1400 c) $1800 d) None of the above.
112) Actual cost=$1000, Budget at completion=$800, Earned value= $500, future work will be accomplished at the planned rate. The estimate at completion is: a) $1000 b) $1300 c) $800 d) None of the above.
113) Phase-end reviews are called: a) Phase exits b) Stage gates c) Kill points d) All of the above.
114) The following is true about risk of failing: a) It is higher in the beginning as uncertainty is high and gets lesser as the project continues b) It remains the same throughout the project c) It is lesser in the beginning as uncertainty is high and gets better as the project continues d) None of the above.
115) In a functional organization structure, the PM's authority is: a) Little or none b) Limited c) Low d) Moderate .
116) In a strong matrix organization structure, the PM's authority is: a) High to almost total b) Limited c) Low to moderate d) Moderate to high.
117) In a projectized organization structure, the PM's authority is: a) High b) Limited c) High to almost total d) Moderate to high.
118) In a balanced matrix, the project budget is controlled by: a) Functional manager b) Project manager c) Mixed d) None of the above.
119) Deming's cycle is used for continuous improvement of processes. The four-step management method is: a) Plan-Do-Check-Act b) Plan-Act-Check-Do c) Plan-Act-Do-Check d) None of the above.
120) ‘Manage Project Team’ belongs to: a) Monitoring process group b) Executing process group c) Controlling process group d) Monitoring and controlling process group.
121) Control procurements belongs to: a) Initiating process group b) Executing process group c) Controlling process group d) Monitoring and controlling process group.
122) Which of these is a reason to start a project: a) Problem b) Market c) Opportunity d) All of the above.
123) Which of the following is true about project charter: a) When the project charter is approved, the project becomes officially authorized b) Provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities c) It is a direct way for senior management to formally accept and commit to the project d) All of the above.
124) The project charter contains: a) Business needs b) Risks c) Quality plan d) None of the above.
125) Scope baseline includes: a) WBS b) WBS dictionary c) Project scope statement d) All of the above.
126) Which of the following is true about project closure: a) Contract closure is for each contract b) Contract closure includes product verification and administrative closure c) Administrative closure happens to close the project or each phase d) All of the above.
127) Administrative closure: a) Happens once to close the project or each project phase b) Needed to confirm that all deliverables have been provided c) Ensures that official acceptance document has been obtained d) All of the above.
128) Which of the below are project selection methods: a) Cost-benefit analysis b) Payback period c) Net present value d) All of the above.
129) WBS: a) Prevents work from slipping through the cracks b) Is the basis for estimates c) Provides the team with an understanding of where their pieces fit in the project plan d) All of the above.
130) Principal sources of project failure: a) Poorly identified customer needs b) Poor planning c) Poor control d) All of the above.
131) Change requests are created because of: a) An omission in defining product/project scope b) A value-adding change c) An external event d) All of the above.
132) Which of the following is an example of a group creativity technique: a) Brainstorming b) Risk identification c) Stakeholder creative communication d) Powerpoint presentations.
133) WBS includes all project work. Which of the following is also true about WBS? a) It doesn't include product work b) It does not include PM work c) Total of work at lowest levels need not always roll up to higher levels as some extra work may be completed d) None of the above.
134) Critical chain method and critical path method are tools and techniques used in which of the below? a) Estimate activity resources b) Control schedule c) Develop schedule d) Estimate activity durations.
135) Resource leveling is a tool/technique used in which of the below? a) Develop schedule b) Control schedule c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
136) Project Time Management is a process needed to: a) Ensure timely completion of project b) Track time taken for each activity c) Bill the client for each hour of work done d) None of the above.
137) The outputs of 'Define Activities' are: a) Activity list b) Activity attributes c) Milestone list d) All of the above.
138) Arrow diagramming method does not use: a) Float b) Finish to start relationship c) Lag d) Activities.
139) Which of the following is discretionary dependency known as: a) Preferential logic b) Soft logic c) Preferred logic d) All of the above.
140) Lead allows _____ of successor activity: a) Acceleration b) Deceleration c) Tracking d) Regression.
141) Lag results in _____ of successor activity: a) Acceleration b) Delay c) Tracking d) Regression.
142) Contingency reserve is for: a) Known unknowns b) Remaining risk after risk response planning c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
143) Management reserve is: a) Intended to address Unknown unknowns b) Part of the overall project duration requirements c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
144) Outputs of Monitor and control project work are: a) Project management plan updates b) Work performance reports c) Change requests d) All of the above.
145) Crashing and Fast tracking are techniques used for: a) Project management b) Cost reduction c) Schedule compression d) Schedule estimation.
146) Cost baseline: a) Is the approved version of the time-phased project budget, excluding any management reserves b) Can only be changed through formal change control procedures c) Developed as a summation of the approved budgets for the different schedule activities d) All of the above.
147) The cost and accuracy of analogous and parametrics models are likely to be most reliable when: a) Historical information used to develop the model is accurate b) Parameters used in the model are readily quantifiable c) Models are scalable, such that they work for large projects, small projects, and phases of a project d) All of the above.
148) Identifying quality standards for the project and dcoumenting how the project will comply with quality requirements is: a) Plan Quality Management b) Perform Quality Assurance c) Control Quality d) Manage Quality .
149) The process of auditing quality requirements and the results from
quality control measurements to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is: a) Plan Quality Management b) Perform Quality Assurance c) Control Quality d) Manage Quality .
150) The process of monitoring and recording results of executing the quality activities
to assess performance and recommend necessary changes is: a) Plan Quality Management b) Perform Quality Assurance c) Control Quality d) Manage Quality .
151) Choosing a part of a population of interest for inspection is: a) Scatter diagram b) Statistical sampling c) Inspection d) Defect repair.
152) Inspections are also called: a) Peer reviews b) Audits c) Walkthroughs d) All of the above.
153) Staff Management Plan contains: a) Staff acquisition b) Staff release plan c) Training needs d) All of the above.
154) Tannenbaum and Schmidt continuum proposes: a) Five stages of team development b) Model-telling c) Offering more freedom as the team matures d) None of the above.
155) Authoritarian, Paternalistic, Democratic and Laissez-faire are examples of: a) Leadership styles b) Team building style c) Planning style d) None of the above.
156) Which of the following can result in conflicts: a) Schedule b) Project priorities c) Resources d) All of the above.
157) Power that a PM has on the basis of the special skills he possesses is: a) Referent b) Expert c) Reward d) Penalty.
158) A conflict management technique that involves incorporating viewpoints from everyone is? a) Smooth b) Collaborate c) Compromise d) Withdraw.
159) Which of the below are techniques to resolve conflicts in a team? a) Collaborate b) Accommodate c) Compromise d) All of the above.
160) Which of the following management styles is focused on increasing employee loyalty to the company by providing a job for life with a strong focus on the well-being of the employee, both on and off the job? a) Theory X b) Theory Y c) Theory Z d) Maslow's hierarchy of needs.
161) According to Expectancy theory, individuals can be motivated towards goals if they believe that: a) There is a positive correlation between efforts and performance b) The outcome of a favorable performance will result in a desirable reward c) A reward from a performance will satisfy an important need d) All of the above.
162) In a communication model, the mode of communication is called: a) Email b) Medium c) Language d) Decoding.
163) Emails and memos are examples of communication type: a) Formal written b) Informal written c) Formal verbal d) Informal verbal.
164) Effective communication means: a) Providing more information than needed b) Providing only the information needed c) Communicating formally with stakeholders d) None of the above.
165) The management style where the manager allows the employees to take part in decision making is: a) Laissez-faire b) Democratic c) Consultative d) Persuasive.
166) A management skill that establishes direction, aligns people, motivates and inspires team is: a) Communicating b) Leading c) Influencing the organization d) Problem solving.
167) Tools used in risk identification are: a) Delphi technique b) Brainstorming c) Interviewing d) All of the above.
168) Risk register as an output of risk identification contains: a) Identified risks and potential responses b) Risk categories c) Root causes of risks d) All of the above.
169) Most of the project manager's time is spent on: a) Project Planning b) Communication c) Risk management d) Tracking.
170) Most of a project's resources are spent on: a) Direct and Manage Project work b) Plan Project c) Control Quality d) Manage Risks.
171) Output of Direct and Manage project work is: a) Project plan b) Preliminary scope statement c) Preliminary cost estimate d) Deliverables.
172) At what stage of your current project should you use the techniques you learnt on your previous projects as PM? a) Executing phase b) Planning phase c) Throughout the project d) Monitoring and controlling phase.
173) Administrative closure: a) Can be omitted sometimes b) Should always be done c) Is the same as contract closure d) None of the above.
174) If you are implementing the risk response plan, you are in: a) Planning phase b) Initiating phase c) Implementation phase d) Closing phase.
175) Interpersonal skills and Management skills are tools to: a) Manage stakeholder engagement b) Report performance c) Distribute information d) Plan communications.
176) Source selection criteria can include which of the below? a) Product cost b) Life-cycle cost c) Technical expertise d) All of the above.
177) Bidder conferences are a tool to: a) Meet with prospective sellers and ensure there is a clear understanding of procurement needs b) Screen contractors c) Award contracts to the winning bidder d) None of the above.
178) Procurement documentation can include which of the below seller-developed technical documentation? a) Deliverables b) Seller performance reports c) Warranties d) All of the above.
179) Monitor and control project work is essential to a) Ensure project is being executed to plan b) Prepare project plan c) Prepare scope statement d) Prepare WBS.
180) Correspondence, Payment Schedules and Requests, Seller performance evaluation documentation are examples of: a) Organizational Process Assets b) Request for proposal c) Project management plan d) None of the above.
181) A type of procurement document whereby the buyer requests a potential seller to provide various pieces of information related to a product or service or seller capability is: a) Request for Information b) Request for Proposal c) Request for Quotation d) None of the above.
182) A contract can end by: a) Successful performance b) Mutual agreement c) Breach of contract d) Any of the above.
183) A procurement audit: a) Is a structured review of the procurement process originating from the Plan Procurement
Management process through Control Procurements b) The objective of a procurement audit is to identify successes
and failures that warrant recognition in the preparation or administration of other procurement contracts on the project, or on other projects within the performing organization c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
184) A type of 'Breach of Contract' is a) Material b) Minor c) Fundamental d) All of the above.
185) Project charter is created based on: a) Business need b) Customer request c) Market force d) Project manager's requirements.
186) With regard to Opportunity cost: a) The smaller the cost, the better b) The larger the cost, the better' c) It depends on cost of materials d) It depends on economic conditions.
187) Predictive life cycles: a) Are also known as fully plan-driven b) Are ones in which the project scope, and the time and cost required to deliver that scope, are determined as early in the project life cycle as practically possible c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
188) Some examples of hygiene factors in Herzberg's motivation theory are: a) Salary, Work conditions, Job security b) Pay, Working conditions, awards c) Pay, Promotion, Salary d) Pay, Promotion, Free lunch.
189) Variance analysis compares actual results to baseline. This can be done for: a) Cost b) Schedule c) Quality d) All of the above.
190) Active listening is: a) Being attentive when the speaker is talking b) Asking questions when the speaker is not clear c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
191) The longest path through a project that shows the shortest duration in which the project can be completed is: a) Critical path b) Project schedule c) Least possible time d) None of the above.
192) Who is responsible for ensuring that risk audits are performed? a) Project manager b) Team members c) Project sponsor d) Functional manager.
193) Pareto principle is also known as: a) 80-20 rule b) Law of vital few c) Principle of factor sparsity d) All of the above.
194) Pareto efficiency states that: a) 80% of effects come from 20% of causes b) 20% of effects come from 80% of causes c) 80% of causes come from 20% of effects d) 20% of causes come from 20% of effects.
195) Regarding control limits, which of the following is true: a) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of control b) If a point lies outside of the control limits, or seven consecutive points are on either side of the mean but within control limits, the process is out of control c) If all but seven points lie within the control limits, and seven consecutive points are on one side of the mean but within control limits, the process is in control d) None of the above.
196) Projects can end due to: a) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Extinction b) Deletion, Starvation, Integration, Extinction c) Addition, Starvation, Disassociation, Extinction d) Addition, Starvation, Integration, Promotion.
197) The tools used in Direct and Manage Project Work are: a) Expert judgment b) Project management information system c) Meetings d) All of the above.
198) Risk mitigation is: a) Preventing the risk from occuring b) Sharing the risk with another person/organization c) Making someone else responsible for the risk d) Reducing the impact or probability of occurrence of the risk.
199) Using which of the below can you predict future performance of team: a) Trend analysis b) EMV c) Control limits d) Risk analysis.
200) Salary of full-time employees and cost of hardware bought specially for your project count as: a) Direct costs b) Indirect costs c) Project costs d) None of the above.
201) A Request for Proposal: a) May invite suppliers to submit a proposal for a product b) Is a type of Procurement document c) Both a and b d) Neither a nor b.
202) Triangular distribution and Beta distribution are formulas used in: a) Analogous estimating b) Parametric estimating c) Three-point estimating d) Bottom up estimating.
203) Payback period is the time it takes to get back money invested in a project. Hence: a) The longer the payback period, the better it is for the project b) The shorter the payback period, the better it is for the project c) Not enough information to decide d) Depends on the present value of money invested.
204) A formally chartered group responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving,
delaying, or rejecting changes to the project, and for recording and communicating such decisions is: a) Board of directors b) Change control board c) Team of project managers d) None of the above.
205) In project scope management overview, variance analysis is done during: a) Control scope b) Define scope c) Create WBS d) Validate scope.
206) Actual cost=$2000, Budget at completion=$1800, Earned value= $1500, future work will be accomplished at the planned rate. The estimate at completion is: a) $1000 b) $2300 c) $800 d) None of the above.
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