You are on the remote parking bay G8 in Djibouti and ready to start engines. The Marshaller has no headset therefore he clears you to start engine 2 by hand signals. After starting engine 2 you get EICAS message R ENGINE FIRE and all alarms and warning lights that confirm that you have a fire in the right engine.
After identifying and confirming the right engine fire with the first officer what will the captain’s initial actions be? Ask for the engine fire memory items then ask for the engine fire, severe damage, separation QRH checklist Ask for the engine fire memory items then ask for the engine fire on the ground QRH checklist Ask for evacuation checklist Crew to carry out NNC engine fire on the ground (back cover .2).
After checklist are completed the fire does not stop and an evacuation is required. How is the back page QRH emergency evacuation checklist accomplished? The checklist is read and do by the First Officer to the Captain The checklist is challenge and response by the First Officer to the Captain The checklist is challenge and response by the PF or PNF. The PF does not need to repeat the information but must acknowledge that the information was heard and understood The checklist is challenge and response, and person of responsibility followed by checking the item and repeating the response.
What RFFS hand signals would you expect to see from the Marshaller indicating “emergency contained” - No outside evidence of dangerous conditions or “all clear” Marshaller running away from the aircraft Arms extended outward and down at 45 degrees angle. Arms moved inward below waistline simultaneously until wrists crossed, then extended outward to starting position. A finger crossing over the throat in “slashing” gesture whilst pointing to the engine number 2 Arm extended from body and held horizontal with hand upraised at eye level. Excecute beckoning arm motion angled backward. Non-beckoning arm held against body.
What is the maximum flap extension altitude? 10.000 ft 22.000 ft 20.000 ft 25.000 ft.
What is the wingspan dimension of the 767-300 54.94 meters 47.57 meters 50.88 meters 53.67 meters.
What does this symbol mean in the QRH?
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - Task divider symbol used to indicate the end of one task and the beginning of another task Precaution symbol used to identify information the flight crew must consider before taking the action Checklist complete symbol Separator symbol used to separate memory items from the reference items.
What is the maximum EGT for TO? 940 for 5 minutes 960 for 10 minutes 960 for 5 minutes 870 for 5 minutes.
What is the ground maneuvering group for the 767-300? C E D F.
What would constitute an aerodrome as category B and what do we need to do before conducting a flight to a cat B aerodrome? Both Commander and First Officer shall self-brief before operating into a Category B aerodrome. The Commander acknowledges this at the bottom of the journey log EFB flight plan page The PIC initial qualification will be gained by a clearance visit of CAA approved simulator equivalent. The Commander acknowledges this at the bottom of the journey log EFB flight plan page No further action is required to fly into a Cat B aerodrome The PIC should be briefed or self-briefed on the aerodrome concerned. Commander acknowledges this by ticking A/F brief at the bottom of the Journey log page in the OFP.
On the Boeing 767-300 aircraft, the speed trend vector indicates: predicted airspeed in 20 seconds based on the current acceleration or deceleration predicted airspeed in 30 seconds based on the current acceleration or deceleration predicted airspeed in 10 seconds based on the current acceleration or deceleration predicted airspeed in 15 seconds based on the current acceleration or deceleration.
During Engine start, name some conditions that would require an aborted start? EGT fails to rise in 20 seconds, STARTER CUTOUT EICAS message Engine fails to accelerate normally, EGT rapidly rising or approaching limit ENGINE OIL PRESSURE light does not extinguish when the engine stabilised at idle B and C.
What is the minimum in flight weight on A9C-DHS 179.000 lbs 189.850 lbs 182.320 lbs 192.550 lbs.
How is climb thrust 1 or 2 selected after take off? climb thrust is automatically selected when Vnav is engaged climb thrust is pre-selected on the ground before takeoff climb thrust is manually selected by the PNF by pushing CLB 1 or 2 in the TMC climb thrust is automatically engaged when selecting ALT on the MCP.
What is recommended if a Low - Level Altitude capture occurs during a Go - Around? FMA will change to N1 / Alt Cap – select CLB thrust and set an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example Vref30+80) then select SPD mode (N1 will change to SPD) Call out CLB 2 Vnav FMA will change to SPD / Alt Cap – select CLB thrust and set an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example Vref30+80) Select CLB 2, FLCH, SPD.
If you experience a Low - Level Altitude capture after take-off, what is the recommended procedure? FMA will change to N1 / Alt Cap – select CLB thrust and set an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example Vref30+80) then select SPD mode (N1 will change to SPD) Call out CLB 2 Vnav FMA will change to SPD / Alt Cap – select CLB thrust and set an appropriate speed for flap retraction (example Vref30+80) Select CLB 2, FLCH, SPD.
How do we actuate a Scott PBE? pull the red ball firmly pushing the oxygen on button Pulling the actuation ring in the direction indicated away from the smoke hood firmly the smoke hood automatically turns on after donning.
When is the start of the monsoon season in Bengaluru? June to September January to March December to February October to December.
On a flight to Hong Kong you are told to climb to 11600 meters. What is this in FLs and where can you find this information? The FPDS will automatically display the PFD meters indication FL 381 ATC will automatically tell you the Flight Level The conversion is included in the dispatch briefing envelope.
Historically, an upset was defined as unintentionally exceeding one or more of the following conditions: Pitch attitude greater than 20 degrees nose up; pitch attitude greater than 15 degrees nose down; bank angle greater than 45 degrees; less than above parameters but flying at an airspeed inappropriate for the conditions. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitude greater than 15 degrees nose down; bank angle greater than 35 degrees; less than above parameters but flying at an airspeed inappropriate for the conditions. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down; bank angle greater than 35 degrees; less than above parameters but flying at an airspeed inappropriate for the conditions. Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up; pitch attitude greater than 10 degrees nose down; bank angle greater than 45 degrees; less than above parameters but flying at an airspeed inappropriate for the conditions.
What are the maximum allowable wind speeds when conducting an Autoland? headwind 40 kts, crosswind 40 kts tailwind 15 kts headwinds 40kts, crosswind 25 kts, tailwind 15 kt headwind 25 kts, crosswind 25 kts. tailwind 18 kts headwind 25 kts, crosswind 25 kts, tailwind 15kts.
When can we not use assumed temperature for take-off? During reported windshear When departing on a contaminated runway conducting a take-off when low visibility procedures are in place a and b are correct.
You are looking for an item in the MEL contents page. Under the MEL item list is stated ‘none’. What does this mean? the item is not applicable to the safety of the flight so you may continue b) the item is not fitted on the aircraft there is no MEL item for the failure condition indicated it is not applicable to our operations.
Out of the following answers what is a standard deviation call on approach? Over 30 degrees of bank “pitch” 1 dot above on the glideslope “glideslope” more than 1800 fpm descent on the VS for a non-precision approach “sink rate” more than 1300 fpm descent on the VS for a non-precision approach.
In accordance with the QRH, what is the policy regarding flight crew pulling and resetting circuit breakers in flight? It is not recommended unless directed by a non-normal checklist. Should not be done at any time. Can be done if the Captain is made aware. may be reset at the Captain’s discretion after a short cooling period of two minutes. Tripped fuel pump circuit breakers are not to be re-set.
Engine anti-ice must be on when icing conditions exist or are anticipated except: During the climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40C SAT. During the climb and cruise when the temperature is below -40C TAT. During all phases of flight when the temperature is below -40C SAT. During the climb and cruise when the temperature is above -40C TAT.
With a _____ de-icing/anti-icing operation, the holdover time begins at the _____ of the operation and with a _______ operation at the _____ of the final (anti-icing) step. one-step / start / two-step / start one-step / end / two-step / start one-step / start / two-step / end one-step / end / two-step / end.
A layer of frost up to _____ thick is permitted on the lower wing surface in the spar area, if it is caused by cold fuel. 3 mm 6 cm 3 cm 12 mm.
When operating in a sandy or dusty environment. When does the effect of sand or dust ingestion predominantly occur? during the approach during take-off, landing and taxi in cruise when starting engines.
What will you take into consideration? (Sandy and dusty environment) The presence of sand or dust will increase brake wear Use autobrakes on landing to help minimize the need for reverse thrust. A light layer of sand or dust on the runway may reduce tire-to-runway friction All of the above.
How do you identify ice crystal icing? ice accumulation around the windscreen wipers TAT remains near 0 degrees Centigrade Amber or red weather returns below the airplane A and C.
What is the maximum amount of dry snow allowable for take-off? 6 cm 12 mm 12 mm 6 mm.
On a PBN approaches the autopilot shall be disengaged at a minimum of: 200 feet TCH 300 feet ARTE 300 feet AAL 200 feet AAL.
Where do we find the runway condition assessment tables? QRH OMA OMB OMC.
Select the correct statement: When any TAWS alerts are in progress, all TCAS and Windshear aural alerts will be inhibited. When a Windshear alert is in progress, all TAWS and TCAS aural alerts will be inhibited. When a Windshear alert is in progress, all TCAS aural alerts will be inhibited. When any TAWS alerts are in progress, all Windshear aural alerts will be inhibited.
Which is true regarding OPT landing performance calculations? Contaminated runway performance will only be calculated for Standing Water or Slush. As per TALPA recommendations a damp runway is to be considered a wet runway. For other contaminates the TALPA runway condition chart (see 4.8) will be used to determine a slippery runway braking action. All of the above.
Volcanic activity can be particularly hazardous to aeroplanes. The crew must make every attempt to avoid flying through the ash plume or through any visible concentrations of ash. Note that airborne weather radar _______ detect volcanic ash, and low concentrations may not be detected by the crew. ____ gives guidance on how to proceed if volcanic ash is encountered. does, OMA does not, Boeing AFM does not; QRH does, OMB.
You are operating a flight in poor weather and experiencing turbulence from CB’s and observe returns on the weather radar. As you descend below FL220 in general terms, what would be the recommended course of action? Avoid all echoes by 10 miles Avoid red returns by 5 miles Avoid all echoes by 20 miles Divert to the nearest suitable airfield.
As PF what is your initial response to a GPWS warning? With autopilot and autothrottle engaged push GA button. Retract the gear and follow through with the GA procedure Disconnect autopilot and autothrottle, push GA button. Retract the gear and follow through with the GA procedure Disconnect autopilot and autothrottle, aggressively apply max thrust, roll wings level and pitch to 20 degrees, retract speedbrakes, do not change gear or flap configuration With autopilot and autothrottle engaged, aggressively apply max thrust, roll wings level and pitch to 20 degrees, retract speedbrakes, do not change gear or flap configuration.
Operationally what may be considered to reduce the impact of Clear Air Turbulence? Clear air turbulence may sometimes be avoided by increasing or decreasing the cruising level if operational considerations permit. Monitoring of other aircraft reports also assists in avoidance. Clear air turbulence may sometimes be minimized by flying at optimum altitude. Climb 4000 ft above optimum altitude. Decrease speed to Mach 0.74.
How many Classes of Fire are there and what is Class C? 4, Flammable Liquids 6, Live electrical 5, Flammable gases 7, Combustible metals.
When does the Hydraulic driven generator (HDG) activate automatically? When both the left and right main AC busses are unpowered When both the left and right stand by buses are unpowered During the loss of the left main AC bus None of the above.
What is the ICAO PANS OPS Circling approach maneuvering airspace radius from threshold for Boeing 767-300 and B767-200 5.28NM / 4.20NM 1.7NM / 2.66NM 4.2NM / 5.28NM 2.3NM / 4.2NM.
RNP 1 means that the position of the aircraft lies with ___ percentage probability within a circle of ___NM centered at calculated aircraft position.
5, 80 80, 5 95, 1 1, 95.
What is the standard RT call by the PNF when a resolution advisory is in effect? Dilmun xxx, TCAS RA Dilmun xxx, clear of conflict, returning to FL xxx Dilmun xxx, climbing due traffic Dilmun xxx, resolution advisory requesting FL xxx.
With regards to the IS&S flat panel display system:
45. Select the correct statement(s) applicable to Right DCU Failure Initial display of Right DCU failure will place a red X on the first officer’s PFD and ND Selection of right ALTN EFI will allow the center DCU to be the source of data for the first officer’s PFD and ND An amber DCU flag and a white C CDU flag will annunciate on the PFD and ND all are correct.
After the scenario in question 45, the Left DCU fails. How is this indicated? Captain’s PFD and ND displays are automatically switched to the Center DCU An amber DCU flag and a white C CDU flag will annunciate on the PFD and ND The automatic switching function is also available when the Left DCU fails before the Right DCU fails all are correct.
After scenario in question 46, what will be your actions? no actions required as there is no QRH checklist for DCU failure complete the dual DCU failure QRH checklist. INSTR SWITCH will be shown on the EICAS No actions as the Captain’s CDU switches over automatically a and c are correct.
Regarding the new EASA rules what does the symbol CAT3 on minimums designate? There is only CAT 3A available There is only CAT 3B available with no reversion CAT 3B is available with CAT 3A reversion – no change to our approved minima There is no such thing as CAT 3A.
Immediate Turn after Takeoff - Select the correct statement: A maximum bank angle of 30° is permitted at V2 + 10 knots with takeoff flaps A maximum bank angle of 25° is permitted at V2 + 15 knots with takeoff flaps A maximum bank angle of 30° is permitted at V2 + 5 knots with takeoff flaps A maximum bank angle of 30° is permitted at V2 + 15 knots with takeoff flap.
What is the typical Tail strike pitch attitude (degrees) - One Engine Inoperative? B762 - 13.8 / B763 - 9.8 B762 - 12.6 / B763 - 9.2 B762 - 11.9 / B763 - 9.4 B762 - 13.1 / B763 - 9.6.
Which of the following is true when the flap lever is moved from the flaps UP position t the flaps 1 position during normal system operation? The LE slats remain retracted, the TE flaps move to flaps 1 position The LE slats move to midrange position, the TE flaps remain retracted The LE slats move to the midrange position, the TE move to flaps 1 position Bothe LE slats and TE flaps remain retracted.
In which flap position will the flap load relief system provide protection from excessive air loads during normal system operation? Flaps 20, 25,30 Flaps 30 Flaps 25 and 30 All flaps positions.
which hydraulic system powers the flaps and slats during normal operation? Right Center Left Center and Left.
With the pack selector in AUTO position, how is the pack output temperature determined during normal system operation? By the left and right cabin temperature controllers, satisfying the compartment requiring the coolest air By the position of the pack selector Pack output temperature is constant By the left and right cabin temperature controllers, satisfying the compartment requiring the warmers air.
Which of the following is true concerning the flight crew shoulder and foot heaters? They operate on the ground after engine start Heat is provided by warm trim air They operate automatically when either L or R pack operates in the AUTO mode They operate in flight only.
What condition is indicated by the EICAS advisory message “FWD EQPT OVHT”? Smoke detected in the forward equipment cooling ducts OVRD selected and no reverse airflow detected through the E/E compartment avionics An equipment cooling valve is not in the commanded position High temperature or low airflow in the equipment cooling system.
During the climb with the pressurization system in the automatic mode, What happens to the cabin climb rate once the maximum cabin pressure differential is reached? increases on a schedule related to the TO field elevation, airplane altitude and the selected auto climb rate limit Automatically maintains 500 ft/min rate of climb Becomes a function of airplane climb rate, while maintaining the maximum differential pressure Automatically maintains 1000 ft/min rate of climb.
Which of the following is true concerning the weather radar installed on te DHX B767-300 (BCF)? Clear air turbulence cannot be sensed by the weather radar Turbulence is displayed in red Weather radar returns can be displayed in PLAN mode Weather radar returns display automatically, regardless of the WXR switch position.
Which of the following GPWS alerts has the highest priority? Windshear - immediate warning - Actual windshear conditions Terrain - Awareness warning - Terrain along the flight path Ground proximity - immediate warning - Severe descent rate Ground proximity - immediate warning - Severe terrain closure rate.
What is the flap placard speed for flap 20 on the B767-300? 200 KIAS 210 KIAS 180 KIAS 195 KIAS.
What is DHL maximum allowable depth of wet snow on the runway for Take off? 6cm 6mm 12mm 18mm.
What cooling is required if the aircraft is electrically powered on the ground for 30 minutes with an OAT of 39°C? Two A/C packs or equivalent ground cooling operating At least one A/C pack or equivalent ground cooling operating Cooling is only required if electrically powered on the ground for more than 30 minutes Crew entry door open or at least one A/C pack or equivalent ground cooling operating as required
to prevent flight deck temperature from exceeding 49°C.
What is the B767 maximum allowable cabin differential? 8.6 +/- 1.0 psi 9.10 psi 0.125 psi 8.8 psi.
What is the maximum altitude for flap extension? 17000 25000 19000 20000.
What is the maximum takeoff crosswind component when the reported braking action is Medium? 17 kts 15 kts 13 kts 20 kts.
How is an upset condition defined?
Pitch attitude greater than 25 degrees nose up Any time an airplane is diverting from the intended airplane state Bank angle greater than 45 degrees Both A and C are correct.
Having recognized and confirmed an upset condition, what are the initial recommended actions for recovery? Reduce thrust Apply nose down elevator Roll in the shortest direction to wings level Disconnect autopilot and autothrottle.
Fill in the Pilot Flying missing action from the following Ground Proximity GPWS Warning maneuver:
• Disconnect autopilot
• Disconnect autothrottle
• Aggressively apply maximum thrust
• Simultaneously roll wings level and rotate to an initial pitch attitude of 20°
• _________________
• If terrain remains a threat, continue rotation up to the pitch limit indicator or stick shaker or initial
buffet Ensure gear up Retract speedbrakes Slowly decrease pitch attitude Apply elevator trim as needed.
During an emergency descent, for what reason should the airspeed be limited and high maneuvering loads avoided?
Structural integrity is in doubt ATC apply speed control To comply with published procedural speeds Airspeed should not be limited during an emergency descent under any circumstance.
During an emergency descent, what are the Captain’s actions when 2000ft above level off? Call “2,000 to go” Remove oxygen mask Reduce commanded IAS before retracting speedbrakes Call for the CABIN ALTITUDE QRH non-normal checklist.
After how many approach attempts should a diversion be made? 4 4, unless a significant weather improvement is reported 3, unless a significant weather improvement is reported 2.
During a visual approach, what is the minimum visibility required to descend below 1000ft AAL? RVR 600m or in flight visibility 1000m RVR 800m or in flight visibility 1000m RVR 600m or in flight visibility at or above minima RVR 800m or in flight visibility at or above minima.
How is Final Reserve fuel calculated? Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at holding speed at 1500ftAAL Fuel to fly for 30 minutes at 250KIAS at 1500ftAAL Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at holding speed at 1500AAL Fuel to fly for 45 minutes at 250KIAS at 1500ftAAL.
When must 2 destination alternates be selected at the planning stage? When the destination aerodrome is an isolated aerodrome When met reports and forecasts for destination indicate that for ±1hr ETA the weather will be below
applicable planning minima When no meteorological information is available Both B and C.
What are the planning minima for a destination alternate if a CAT I approach is expected? Cat I Non-precision RVR with ceiling at or above MDH Circling Non-precision RVR plus 1000m with ceiling at or above MDH plus 200f.
For takeoff, the assumed temperature method is not allowed: On a wet runway When the oat is below 10c On a contaminated runway When the engine anti ice is on.
During cold weather operations which of the following considerations should be given during Engine start? Oil pressure may be slow to rise Initial oil pressure rise may be higher than normal Additional warm up may be needed to allow oil temperature reach the normal range All of the above.
When is an engine run up required before departure? Oat is 3C or below Oat is 10C or below Engine anti ice is required Both A and C.
During de-icing/anti-icing procedures, what should be the position of the engine and APU bleed air switches? Engine bleed air switches off, APU bleed air switch off Engine bleed air switches off, APU bleed air switch on Engine bleed air switches on, APU bleed air switch off Engine bleed air switches on, APU bleed air switch on.
What is the primary method of use of the wing anti-ice?
To use it as an anti-icer To use it as a de-icer in flight To use it as a de-icer on the ground Wing anti-ice is not used.
RVSM is implemented between _____ FL280 and 410 inclusive FL290 and 410 inclusive FL280 and 410 inclusive FL290 and 420 inclusive.
What is the primary source of information for the equipment required for RVSM operation? Table 28 OMA Section 8 OMB – Supplementary procedures MEL QRH.
Unless otherwise specified, what is the default RNP value for an RNP APCH? 0.13 nm 1.00 nm 0.30 nm 0.75 nm.
What are the lower and upper limits of a vertical path suitable for the use of VNAV during an RNP APCH? 2.77° to 3.77° 3.00° to 4.00° 2.50° to 3.50° 3.17° to 4.17°.
What is the correct phraseology to inform ATC of a TCAS Resolution Advisory? TCAS RA Traffic TCAS, leaving FL….. TCAS TA.
What are the main hazards of operations in a sandy or dusty environment? Erosion (especially of engine fan blades) Accumulation of sand and dust on critical surfaces Blockages All of the above.
What is the B767 turbulent air penetration speed? 280 knots/.78 Mach 290 knots/.78 Mach 270 knots/.79 Mach 290 knots/.79 Mach.
Which of the following precautions are recommended during a takeoff if windshear is suspected? Use of the assumed temperature method Use the flight director after takeoff Consider decreasing VR speed to minimize time on the ground Increase rotation rate.
During the cruise, the returns of a cell 30nm from the aircraft position disappear from the weather radar display when the tilt of the antenna is set lower than 2 degrees down tilt. What is the vertical distance between the top of the cell and the aircraft level? 5000ft 6000ft 7000ft 8000ft.
If a thunderstorm must be overflown, what vertical separation should me maintained from the cloud tops? 2000 ft 3000 ft 4000 ft 5000 ft.
When considering firefighting, removal of oxygen is known as _________ the fire. Starving Choking Smothering Cooling.
How long will the oxygen supply last when using the PBE found on the B767-300? Minimum 10 minutes Minimum 15 minutes Minimum 20 minutes Maximum 20 minutes.
How is the ELT found on the B767-300 activated? Immersion in water, provided the ELT switch is set to the ARM position Immersion in water, regardless of the ELT switch position Position the switch to ON position Automatically when removed from its wall mounted bracket.
How many life jackets are found on the B767-300? 6 7 5 8.
What does the yellow cross on the flow indicator of the Flight Crew Oro-nasal Mask indicate? Air/oxygen mixture is flowing to the mask (ratio dependent on cabin altitude) Oxygen psi is sufficient Cabin altitude exceeds 12,000ft Oxygen is flowing (shows momentarily as harness inflates).
What type of pilot incapacitation is considered most dangerous? Obvious incapacitation Loss of consciousness Food poisoning Subtle incapacitation.
What is the purpose of the flap maneuver speeds? They guarantee full maneuver capability or at least 40° of bank to stick shaker within a few thousand feet of the airport altitude Using airplane angle of attack and current airspeed they ensure full maneuver capability They indicate the maximum KIAS for a particular flap position They guarantee speed stability in the landing flap positions.
What is the recommended technique for rapid descents? Use of V/S and manual flight Use of FLCH and autopilot Use of V/S and autopilot Use of FLCH and manual flight.
Which of the following is true concerning B767s fitted with carbon brakes? Brake wear is primarily dependent upon number of brake applications Continuous light application of the brakes to keep the airplane from accelerating over a long period
of time (riding the brakes) produces more wear than proper brake application Proper braking involves steady application of the brakes to decelerate the airplane All of the above.
After liftoff, the flight director commands pitch to maintain what speed? V2 V2 + 20 kt V2 + 15 to 20 kt Best angle of climb speed.
When will the EICAS LOW FUEL caution message be displayed and which other indication will alert the crew? Fuel in either main tank drops below approximately 2500 pounds, FUEL CONFIG light illuminates Fuel in either main tank drops below approximately 2200 pounds, FMC message INSUFFICIENT FUEL displays Fuel in either main tank drops below approximately 2200 pounds, FUEL CONFIG light illuminates Fuel in either main tank drops below approximately 2500 pounds, FMC message INSUFFICIENT
FUEL displays.
How is fuel supplied to the APU when AC power is not available? The left main tank contains a DC-powered fuel pump which operates automatically when the APU selector is on and AC power is not available The right main tank contains a DC-powered fuel pump which operates automatically when the APU selector is on and AC power is not available Fuel cannot be supplied to the APU when AC power is not available Both main tanks contain DC-powered fuel pumps which are activated manually by turning the
battery switch on.
Which of the following statements regarding the Fuel Jettison system are correct? The Fuel Jettison system allows jettison from the centre fuel tank Jettison rate is approximately 1300 pounds per minute The FMC discontinues fuel value calculations and the totalizer value is used during fuel jettison operation All of the above are correct.
What does the airspeed trend vector indicate? Predicted airspeed in 7 seconds Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds Predicted airspeed in 5 seconds Predicted airspeed in 8 seconds.
What does the EICAS advisory message CAPT PITOT indicate? Captain’s pitot probe is inoperative Captain’s pitot probe heat is inoperative Insufficient airflow is sensed in the left aux pitot probe Captain has selected ALTN using the AIR DATA switch.
The APU is turned on whilst a Ground Power Unit (GPU) is powering both AC main buses. Which of the following is correct? The APU generator automatically connects to both AC main buses The APU generator automatically connects to the left AC main bus, the GPU continues to power the right AC main bus The APU generator automatically connects to the right AC main bus, the GPU continues to power the left AC main bus The GPU continues to power both AC main buses.
Which of the following is the source order for powering left and right AC main buses?
APU generator – Respective IDG – Opposite IDG Opposite IDG – Respective IDG – APU generator Respective IDG – APU Generator – Opposite IDG Respective IDG – Opposite IDG – APU Generator.
What does the EICAS message L GEN DRIVE indicate? Left generator drive oil pressure is low or generator drive oil temperature is high Left generator control breaker is open Left bus tie breaker is open Left IDG is powering the right AC main bus.
Which of the following statements regarding the battery bus is correct? With electrical power established, the left DC system powers the battery bus With electrical power established, the main battery powers the battery bus Prior to establishing electrical power, the left DC system powers the battery bus Prior to establishing electrical power, when the battery switch is OFF, the main battery powers the battery bus.
What is the maximum altitude at which APU electrical power can be used? 17.000 ft At any altitude 8.400 ft 20.000 ft.
What is the maximum airspeed of the B767-300? 360kts IAS/0.84 Mach 350kts IAS/0.86 Mach 340kts IAS/0.84 Mach 340kts IAS/0.86 Mach.
Which flap positions may be used during fuel jettison system operation? Flaps must not be used during fuel jettison Flap positions UP, 1, 5, 15 and 20 Flap positions 25 and 30 Flap positions UP and 1.
What is the maximum landing crosswind component with a reported braking action of medium? 40 35 25 17.
The APU starter duty cycle is a maximum of ___ consecutive starts or attempts within a ___ minute period. Fill in the blanks. 3, 60 2, 60 3, 30 3, 120.
What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch? 17 quarts 18 quarts 16 quarts 20 quarts.
Which of the following EICAS messages may be evidence of unreliable airspeed/Mach indication? INSTR SWITCH ALT DISAGREE FWD EQPT OVHT AUTOPILOT DISC.
What is the APU fuel consumption rate whilst on the ground? 200 lb/hr 220 lb/hr 250 lb/hr 270 lb/hr.
Which of the following is the correct guidance on use of rudder during upset recovery? If the aircraft is stalled, use of rudder to aid roll control is essential Rudder should never be used during upset recovery Rudder may be required if the bank angle exceeds 45 degrees Careful use of rudder to aid roll control should be considered only if roll control is ineffective and the airplane is not stalled.
In order to regard a GPWS obstacle or terrain warning as cautionary and continue an approach, under which of the following conditions must positive visual verification be made that no obstacle or terrain hazard exists? Daylight VMC Prior to an obstacle or terrain warning All of the above.
What is the upper pitch attitude limit during a GPWS Warning maneuver? 20° There is no upper limit, continue to increase pitch attitude until terrain is no longer a threat The pitch attitude that results in intermittent stick shaker or initial buffet 30°.
What is the DHL minimum visibility and MDH possible for a circling approach on the B767-300? 3600m/700ft 2400m/800ft 2400m/700ft 3600m/800ft.
When must the Operational Flight Plan specify a Take-off Alternate Aerodrome? Actual meteorological conditions are close to published departure minima Meteorological and/or performance considerations preclude a return to the departure aerodrome Low Visibility Operations are in force at the departure aerodrome Meteorological conditions at the departure aerodrome preclude a CAT I approach.
Use of which of the following RNP approach minima is approved for DHL? LNAV VNAV LPV Both A and B are correct.
What runway lighting is required for a take-off at night? Runway edge and centreline lighting No lighting is required Runway edge and runway end lighting Centreline lighting.
What is the effect on landing minima of failed or downgraded Touchdown Zone Lights for a CAT III approach with no DH? Day – RVR 200m Night – RVR 300m No restrictions Both A and B are correct.
During cold weather operations, take-off with which of the following is permitted? Light coating of frost, up to 1/8 inch (3mm) in thickness on lower wing surfaces due to cold fuel Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage provided all vents and ports are clear Light coating of frost, up to 1/8 inch (3mm) in thickness on upper wing surfaces due to cold fuel A and B are correct.
In the case of remote de-icing, when shall the flight control check be completed? Delay until de-icing is completed As with normal operating procedures, after take-off flaps are set during the Before Taxi Procedure Whilst de-icing is in progress in order to save time This may be completed on stand so as not to interfere with the remote de-icing.
Sometime after being anti-iced it is determined that the aircraft cannot complete take-off before expiry of the holdover time. Which of the following is correct? The aircraft should return in order to receive a further coating of anti-icing fluid The aircraft should return in order for a complete de-icing/anti-icing process to be performed If the fluid used was type IV, take-off is permitted without any further fluid application The Captain shall perform another flight control check to determine if it is safe to depart.
Why do Type I fluids provide limited holdover time? They contain a thickening agent which enables the fluid to form a thicker liquid film on external aircraft surfaces Due to their properties they form a thin liquid wetting film Increasing the concentration of the fluid/water mix would provide additional holdover time Both B and C are correct.
Which flap setting is required during De-icing/Anti-icing? Flaps 25 or 30 to ensure full treatment of the flaps and slats Flaps1,5,15or20 Flaps UP Any flap setting at the discretion of the Commander.
Which of the following take precedence over a TCAS RA? Stall warning Windshear warning GPWS warning All of the above.
What must the crew do if an ATC clearance or instruction is contradictory to an RA? Follow the RA and inform ATC: “Unable, TCAS RA” Follow the RA, telling ATC to standby Ignore the RA and follow ATC instruction If the traffic is visually acquired they may ignore the RA and follow ATC instruction.
What is the maximum difference at a Sea Level aerodrome between the Captain and First Officer altitude displays for RVSM operations? 45 ft 50 ft 40 ft 75 ft.
On all PBN approaches the autopilot shall be disengaged at a minimum of...... 180 ft ARTE 200 ft ARTE 300 ft ARTE 150 ft ARTE.
For which approaches should the baro minimums selector be set at DA/MDA +50 ft All non-ILS approaches All approach types CAT I ILS Baro minimums selector should always be set at DA/MDA.
Whilst operating in a sandy or dusty environment, when do the effects of sand ingestion predominantly occur? Take off Landing Taxi All of the above.
What is the definition of windshear? A change of wind speed over a short distance along the flight path A change of wind speed and/or direction over a short distance along the flight path A change of wind direction over a short distance along the flight path A turbulent air mass caused by changes in air temperature.
Which of the following deviations from steady state flight conditions below 1,000ft AGL are indications of windshear? 4 degrees pitch attitude Unusual thrust lever position for a significant period of time 400 FPM vertical speed 10 knots indicated airspeed.
Which of the following are possible repercussions of flight through volcanic ash? Extreme abrasion to all forward facing parts of the aeroplane Unreliable airspeed Loss of power or even shut-down of engines All of the above.
What is the objective of the Volcanic Ash QRH checklist? There is no Volcanic Ash QRH checklist To exit the ash cloud and restart engines if needed To permit safe continued flight through the ash cloud To ensure both engines continue running.
What is the DHL Bahrain definition of Extended Diversion Time Operations (EDTO)? Any operation by an aeroplane with two or more turbine engines where the diversion time to an en-route alternate aerodrome is greater than the threshold time established by the BCAA Any operation by an aeroplane where the expected en-route diversion time will be more than 1 hour Any operation by an aeroplane where the destination alternate aerodrome is more than 1 hour flight time from the destination aerodrome Any operation by an aeroplane with two or more turbine engines where the diversion time to landfall is greater than the threshold time established by the BCAA.
What is the DHL Bahrain EDTO approval time? 60 minutes 90 minutes 120 minutes 180 minutes.
What is the maximum diversion distance for DHL Bahrain 90 minutes EDTO approval? 400 nm 420 nm 630 nm 650 nm.
When determining fuel required for an EDTO flight, how much holding time is considered in the event of diversion to an EDTO En-route Alternate Aerodrome (ERA)? 30 minutes at 1500 ft overhead the ERA 30 minutes at 1500 ft overhead the destination aerodrome 15 minutes at 1500 ft overhead the destination aerodrome 15 minutes at 1500 ft overhead the ERA.
How are forecast crosswind components applied at the planning stage when assessing the suitability of a potential EDTO ERA? It is not necessary to consider forecast crosswind components when selecting a EDTO ERA The forecast crosswind component, excluding gusts, for the landing runway expected to be used should not exceed the maximum permitted crosswind for single engine landing 1.5 x the forecast crosswind component, excluding gusts, for the landing runway expected to be used should not exceed the maximum permitted crosswind for single engine landing The forecast crosswind component, including gusts, for the landing runway expected to be used should not exceed the maximum permitted crosswind for single engine landing.
During a rapid descent, which of the following is true regarding short-term airspeed increases above VMO/MMO? They are acceptable for this maneuver and the autopilot should adjust the pitch to correct Disengage the autopilot and manually adjust pitch to correct Airspeeds above VMO/MMO are not acceptable for this maneuver They are acceptable for this maneuver, however crew should disengage the autopilot immediately in order to correct.
Why does the Fuel Leak Non-Normal Checklist direct the crew to shutdown the affected engine if an engine fuel leak is confirmed? In order to close the spar valve, which stops the leak The fire potential is increased when fuel is leaking around the engine The engine will soon flameout anyway Both A and B are correct.
In the event of a wheel well fire, which of the following are preferred techniques to reduce the airspeed before extending the landing gear? Select Altitude Hold and set approximately 250 knots Use VNAV speed intervention Use FLCH Use V/S.
Which of the following is true regarding the memory items for an unreliable airspeed condition? The pitch and thrust settings work for specific model/engine combinations, at a specific range of weights and altitudes The pitch and thrust settings are biased toward a higher airspeed as it is better to be at a high energy state than a low energy state The pitch and thrust settings given will result in level flight The flaps extended pitch and thrust settings will result in a descent.
Which of the following is correct guidance if a go-around is needed due to an airspeed unreliable event during the approach? Push GA switches to ensure sufficient rate of climb Do not push GA switches, instead set the pitch and thrust settings from the memory items Do not push GA switches, disengage autopilot and disconnect autothrottle, execute a go-around using go-around thrust and smoothly increase pitch towards 15° Do not execute a go-around during an airspeed unreliable event.
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